AdamDougall
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- AdamDougall
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Never mind, the battle card shows this as a correct answer. I'm not sure what the mark scheme was getting at.
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I believe that question is based on 2016 Fall Q20
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Actually there was catastrophic problem with the testing centres yesterday which means lots of us weren't able to take our exam. And no word yet from CAS about when the rescheduled exams will take place. https://www.reddit.com/r/actuary/comments/…
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This is the main place I was thinking of in the wiki:
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To help me remember this, I like to think that a regulator's role is to make sure everyone gets their piece of the PIE
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I guess I was wondering why we say that parts 2 & 5 are required to analyse reserve adequacy instead of e.g. parts 2,3,4?
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would it be possible to get this question marked with something as I had the same confusion
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oh so in practice the $5m threshold required for certification isn't that relevant for TRIA, since it needs to hit $200m anyway. thanks!
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On example 4, the insurer's losses are less than $5m so wouldn't that mean the criteria for loss-sharing hasn't been met? And related to that, I assume the $5m threshold only includes commercial lines? i.e. the insurance company can't have $10m o…
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yeah ok, I wondered if this were the case. I assumed they were independent since they summed to 1. Hopefully they'd accept either answer given the ambiguity. I was beginning to question whether I misunderstood percentiles
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Thank you, that's a much more memorable way of thinking about it
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After reading some more, I'll have a crack myself: because the fixed assets risk covers default AND interest rate risk. Federal income tax recoverable and treasury bonds both have a risk of default if the US goes bust. But the treasury bonds have an…
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Why in this question do we consider "federal income tax recoverable" a credit risk but e.g. treasury bonds an asset risk?